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>> ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Real Brain Dumps <<
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NEW QUESTION # 19
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?
Answer: B
Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.
NEW QUESTION # 20
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
An organization is aiming to achieve capability level 3 for the deployment management practice. What is an indication of the achievement of capability level 3?
Answer: A
Explanation:
ITIL 4 defines capability level 3 for a practice as achieving integration across the organization, where the practice is embedded into broader workflows and understood by related practices. For deployment management, an indication of reaching capability level 3 is when employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows (Option B). This demonstrates cross-functional alignment and maturity, showing that deployment management is not siloed but part of the organization's value streams.
Option A (The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities): Incorrect, as continual improvement is characteristic of higher capability levels (e.g., level 4), not the defining feature of level 3.
Option B (Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows): Correct, as level 3 focuses on integration and collaboration across practices, per ITIL 4's capability framework.
Option C (The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice): Incorrect, as reporting effectiveness is a general management task, not specific to level 3 maturity.
Option D (Deployment models are developed and implemented): Incorrect, as model development occurs at lower capability levels (e.g., level 1 or 2), not a hallmark of level 3.
NEW QUESTION # 21
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What should the organization keep in mind when planning improvements to deployment models?
Answer: B
Explanation:
ITIL 4 emphasizes continual improvement in deployment management, which includes identifying and addressing inefficiencies in deployment models to enhance performance, reliability, and value delivery. Option D directly aligns with this principle by focusing on streamlining inefficient processes during model updates.
Option A (The impact of deployed software should not be considered when designing these models): Incorrect, as ITIL 4 stresses that the impact of deployments on services, users, and the organization is a critical consideration to ensure value and minimize disruption.
Option B (User resistance to updates is not a relevant factor to consider when designing deployment models): Incorrect, as user experience and acceptance are key factors in ITIL 4's value co-creation model, and resistance must be addressed to ensure successful deployments.
Option C (The same deployment approach should be used for deployments of similar size): Incorrect, as ITIL 4 advocates for context-specific deployment models tailored to the unique needs of each service or environment, not a one-size-fits-all approach.
Option D (Deployment model updates should consider inefficient processes): Correct, as improving deployment models involves analyzing current processes, identifying bottlenecks or waste, and optimizing workflows to deliver greater value.
NEW QUESTION # 22
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?
Answer: B
Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.
NEW QUESTION # 23
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What should be done if a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested for technical reasons?
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a newly developed deployment model cannot be tested due to technical limitations, ITIL 4 emphasizes a risk-based approach to deployment management to ensure stability and minimize disruption. Option C, closely monitoring the first few uses of the new model, aligns with ITIL 4's guidance to proceed cautiously when full testing is not feasible. This approach allows the organization to deploy the model in a controlled environment, observe its performance, and quickly address any issues, thereby reducing risk while gathering real-world data.
Option A (Only use the new model after a way to test it has been found): While testing is ideal, delaying deployment indefinitely until a testing method is found may not be practical, especially if business needs require timely deployment. This option is overly restrictive and does not balance risk with operational demands.
Option B (Carry out test deployments to see if the model works correctly): Conducting test deployments assumes testing is possible, which contradicts the question's premise that testing cannot be done for technical reasons. This makes the option invalid.
Option C (Closely monitor the first few uses of the new model): This is the most pragmatic approach, as it allows deployment with safeguards like monitoring to mitigate risks, aligning with ITIL's focus on value delivery and risk management.
Option D (Automate the activities of the new model before it is used): Automating an untested model could amplify risks, as automation without validation may propagate errors across environments.
NEW QUESTION # 24
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